Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 02.07.2025 00:34

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

There's no rule.

You'll usually find your answer there.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

How can I easily get rid of my writers block?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

When a dog smells another dog’s poo or wee, do they then remember that scent for when they smell it again, or even further know which dog they are smelling if they know the dog?

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Is it true or false that Andrew Tate announced that he is running for prime minister of the UK under a new political party called 'BRUV' or something like that?

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

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